CAPITAL ASSET PRICING MODEL (CAPM).
In finance, the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) is used
to determine a theoretically appropriate required rate of
return of an asset, if that asset is to be added to an already
well-diversified portfolio, given that asset's non-diversifiable risk. The model takes into
account the asset's sensitivity to non-diversifiable risk (also known as systematic
risk or market risk), often represented by the quantity
beta
(β) in the financial industry, as well as the expected
return of the market and the expected return of a theoretical risk-free asset.
The model was introduced by:
independently, building on
the earlier work of Harry Markowitz on diversification and modern portfolio theory. Sharpe, Markowitz
and Merton Miller
jointly received the Nobel Memorial Prize in Economics
for this contribution to the field of financial economics
THE FORMULA
The CAPM
is a model for pricing an individual security or portfolio. For individual
securities, we make use of the security market line (SML) and its relation to expected
return and systematic risk (beta) to show how the market must
price individual securities in relation to their security risk class. The SML
enables us to calculate the reward-to-risk ratio for any security in relation
to that of the overall market. Therefore, when the expected rate of return for
any security is deflated by its beta coefficient, the reward-to-risk ratio for
any individual security in the market is equal to the market reward-to-risk
ratio, thus:
The market
reward-to-risk ratio is effectively the market risk premium and by rearranging
the above equation and solving for E(Ri), we obtain the Capital Asset Pricing
Model (CAPM).
where:
- is the expected return on the capital asset
- is the risk-free rate of interest such as interest arising from government bonds
- (the beta) is the sensitivity of the expected excess asset returns to the expected excess market returns, or also ,
- is the expected return of the market
- is sometimes known as the market premium (the difference between the expected market rate of return and the risk-free rate of return).
- is also known as the risk premium
Restated, in terms of risk premium,
we find that:
which
states that the individual risk premium equals the market premium
times β.
Note 1:
the expected market rate of return is usually estimated by measuring the Geometric Average of the historical returns on a market portfolio (e.g.
S&P 500).
Note 2:
the risk free rate of return used for determining the risk premium is usually
the arithmetic average of historical risk free rates of return and not the
current risk free rate of return.
ASSUMPTIONS OF CAPM
All investors:
- Aim to maximize economic utilities.
- Are rational and risk-averse.
- Are broadly diversified across a range of investments.
- Are price takers, i.e., they cannot influence prices.
- Can lend and borrow unlimited amounts under the risk free rate of interest.
- Trade without transaction or taxation costs.
- Deal with securities that are all highly divisible into small parcels.
- Assume all information is available at the same time to all investors.
Further,
the model assumes that standard deviation of past returns is a perfect proxy
for the future risk associated with a given security.
SECURITY MARKET LINE.
The SML essentially graphs the results from
the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) formula. The x-axis represents
the risk (beta), and the y-axis represents the expected return. The
market risk premium is determined from the slope of the SML.
The
relationship between β and required return is plotted on the securities
market line (SML), which shows expected return as a function of β. The
intercept is the nominal risk-free rate available for the market, while the
slope is the market premium, E(Rm)− Rf.
The securities market line can be regarded as representing a single-factor
model of the asset price, where Beta is exposure to changes in value of the
Market. The equation of the SML is thus:
It is a
useful tool in determining if an asset being considered for a portfolio offers
a reasonable expected return for risk. Individual securities are plotted on the
SML graph. If the security's expected return versus risk is plotted above the
SML, it is undervalued since the investor can expect a greater return for the
inherent risk. And a security plotted below the SML is overvalued since the
investor would be accepting less return for the amount of risk assumed.
ASSET PRICING.
Once the
expected/required rate of return, , is calculated using
CAPM, we can compare this required rate of return to the asset's estimated rate
of return over a specific investment horizon to determine whether it would be
an appropriate investment. To make this comparison, you need an independent
estimate of the return outlook for the security based on either fundamental
or technical analysis techniques, including P/E, M/B etc.
Assuming
that the CAPM is correct, an asset is correctly priced when its estimated price
is the same as the present value of future cash flows of the asset, discounted
at the rate suggested by CAPM. If the observed price is higher than the CAPM valuation,
then the asset is undervalued (and overvalued when the estimated price is below
the CAPM valuation).When the asset does not lie on the SML, this could also
suggest mis-pricing. Since the expected return of the asset at time is ,
a higher expected return than what CAPM suggests indicates that is too low (the asset is
currently undervalued), assuming that at time the asset returns to the
CAPM suggested price
The asset price using CAPM, sometimes
called the certainty
equivalent pricing formula, is a
linear relationship given by
where is the payoff of the
asset or portfolio.
ASSET-SPECIFIC REQUIRED RETURN.
The CAPM returns the asset-appropriate required
return or discount rate—i.e. the rate at which future cash flows produced by
the asset should be discounted given that asset's relative riskiness. Betas
exceeding one signify more than average "riskiness"; betas below one
indicate lower than average. Thus, a more risky stock will have a higher beta
and will be discounted at a higher rate; less sensitive stocks will have lower
betas and be discounted at a lower rate. Given the accepted concave utility
function, the CAPM is consistent withintuition—investors (should)
require a higher return for holding a more risky asset.
Since beta reflects asset-specific sensitivity to
non-diversifiable, i.e. market risk, the market as a whole, by definition, has a beta of one.
Stock market indices are frequently used as local proxies for the market—and in
that case (by definition) have a beta of one. An investor in a large,
diversified portfolio (such as a mutual fund),
therefore, expects performance in line with the market.
RISK AND DIVERSIFICATION.
The risk of a portfolio comprises systematic
risk, also known as undiversifiable risk, and unsystematic
risk which is also known as idiosyncratic risk or diversifiable
risk. Systematic risk refers to the risk common to all securities—i.e. market risk.
Unsystematic risk is the risk associated with individual assets. Unsystematic
risk can be diversified away to smaller levels by
including a greater number of assets in the portfolio (specific risks
"average out"). The same is not possible for systematic risk within
one market. Depending on the market, a portfolio of approximately 30-40
securities in developed markets such as UK or US will render the portfolio
sufficiently diversified such that risk exposure is limited to systematic risk
only. In developing markets a larger number is required, due to the higher
asset volatilities.
A rational investor should not take on any
diversifiable risk, as only non-diversifiable risks are rewarded within the
scope of this model. Therefore, the required return on an asset, that is, the return
that compensates for risk taken, must be linked to its riskiness in a portfolio
context—i.e. its contribution to overall portfolio riskiness—as opposed to its
"stand alone riskiness." In the CAPM context, portfolio risk is
represented by higher variance i.e. less predictability. In other words the beta of
the portfolio is the defining factor in rewarding the systematic exposure taken
by an investor.
THE EFFICIENT FRONTIER.
The CAPM assumes that the risk-return profile of a
portfolio can be optimized—an optimal portfolio displays the lowest possible
level of risk for its level of return. Additionally, since each additional
asset introduced into a portfolio further diversifies the portfolio, the
optimal portfolio must comprise every asset, (assuming no trading costs) with
each asset value-weighted to achieve the above (assuming that any asset is infinitely divisible). All such optimal
portfolios, i.e., one for each level of return, comprise the efficient
frontier.
Because the unsystematic risk is diversifiable, the total risk of a
portfolio can be viewed as beta.
THE MARKET PORTFOLIO.
An
investor might choose to invest a proportion of his or her wealth in a
portfolio of risky assets with the remainder in cash—earning interest at the
risk free rate (or indeed may borrow money to fund his or her purchase of risky
assets in which case there is a negative cash weighting). Here, the ratio of
risky assets to risk free asset does not determine overall return—this
relationship is clearly linear. It is thus possible to achieve a particular
return in one of two ways:
- By investing all of one's wealth in a risky portfolio,
- By investing a proportion in a risky portfolio and the remainder in cash (either borrowed or invested).
For a
given level of return, however, only one of these portfolios will be optimal
(in the sense of lowest risk). Since the risk free asset is, by definition, uncorrelated with any other asset, option 2 will generally have the
lower variance and hence be the more efficient of the two.
This
relationship also holds for portfolios along the efficient frontier: a higher
return portfolio plus cash is more efficient than a lower return portfolio
alone for that lower level of return. For a given risk free rate, there is only
one optimal portfolio which can be combined with cash to achieve the lowest
level of risk for any possible return. This is the market portfolio.
PROBLEMS OF CAPM.
1.The model assumes that either asset returns are (jointly) normally distributed random variables or that active and potential shareholders employ a quadratic form of utility. It is, however, frequently observed that returns in equity and other markets are not normally distributed (high peak and fat tail). As a result, large swings (3 to 6 standard deviations from the mean) occur in the market more frequently than the normal distribution assumption would expect.
2. The model assumes that the variance of returns is an adequate measurement of risk. This would be implied by the assumption that returns are normally distributed, or indeed are distributed in any two-parameter way, but for general return distributions other risk measures (like coherent risk measures) will reflect the active and potential shareholders' preferences more adequately. Indeed risk in financial investments is not variance in itself, rather it is the probability of losing: it is asymmetric in nature.
3. The model assumes that all active and potential shareholders have access to the same information and agree about the risk and expected return of all assets (homogeneous expectations assumption).
4. The model assumes that the probability beliefs of active and potential shareholders match the true distribution of returns. A different possibility is that active and potential shareholders' expectations are biased, causing market prices to be informationally inefficient. This possibility is studied in the field of behavioral finance, which uses psychological assumptions to provide alternatives to the CAPM such as the overconfidence-based asset pricing model of Kent Daniel, David Hirshleifer, and Avanidhar Subrahmanyam (2001).
5. The model does not appear to adequately explain the variation in stock returns. Empirical studies show that low beta stocks may offer higher returns than the model would predict. Some data to this effect was presented as early as a 1969 conference in Buffalo, New York in a paper by Fischer Black, Michael Jensen, and Myron Scholes. Either that fact is itself rational (which saves the efficient-market hypothesis but makes CAPM wrong), or it is irrational (which saves CAPM, but makes the EMH wrong – indeed, this possibility makes volatility arbitrage a strategy for reliably beating the market).
6. The model assumes that given a certain expected return, active and potential shareholders will prefer lower risk (lower variance) to higher risk and conversely given a certain level of risk will prefer higher returns to lower ones. It does not allow for active and potential shareholders who will accept lower returns for higher risk. Casino gamblers pay to take on more risk, and it is possible that some stock traders will pay for risk as well.
7. The model assumes that there are no
taxes or transaction costs, although this assumption may be relaxed with more
complicated versions of the model.
8. The market portfolio consists of all assets in all markets, where each asset is weighted by its market capitalization. This assumes no preference between markets and assets for individual active and potential shareholders, and that active and potential shareholders choose assets solely as a function of their risk-return profile. It also assumes that all assets are infinitely divisible as to the amount which may be held or transacted.
9.The market portfolio should in
theory include all types of assets that are held by anyone as an investment
(including works of art, real estate, human capital...) In practice, such a
market portfolio is unobservable and people usually substitute a stock index as
a proxy for the true market portfolio. Unfortunately, it has been shown that
this substitution is not innocuous and can lead to false inferences as to the
validity of the CAPM, and it has been said that due to the in observability of
the true market portfolio, the CAPM might not be empirically testable. This was
presented in greater depth in a paper by Richard Roll in 1977, and is generally referred to as Roll's critique.
10. The model assumes economic agents
optimise over a short-term horizon, and in fact investors with longer-term
outlooks would optimally choose long-term inflation-linked bonds instead of
short-term rates as this would be more risk-free asset to such an agent.
11. The model assumes just two dates, so
that there is no opportunity to consume and rebalance portfolios repeatedly
over time. The basic insights of the model are extended and generalized in the intertemporal CAPM (ICAPM) of Robert Merton, and the consumption
CAPM (CCAPM) of Douglas Breeden and Mark
Rubinstein.
12. CAPM assumes that all active and
potential shareholders will consider all of their assets and optimize one
portfolio. This is in sharp contradiction with portfolios that are held by
individual shareholders: humans tend to have fragmented portfolios or, rather,
multiple portfolios: for each goal one portfolio — see behavioral portfolio
theory and Maslowian Portfolio
Theory.
13. Empirical tests show market
anomalies like the size and value effect that cannot be explained by the CAPM.
For details see the Fama–French
three-factor model.
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